Crossposted using Lemmit.
Original post from /r/ipv6 by /u/Kevin_Cossaboon on 2023-07-05 19:30:03+00:00.
I have a /48, and I am using it as /64’s
Is there an issue with doing this;
Internet—(Router1)—/64----(Router2)—/64
- I have a Router on the WAN/FiOS, where the Tunnel.HE terminates.
- I take the /48 and put one on the LAN side of that Router
- Then Router2, obtains it’s WAN from Router1
- Then I assign another /64 from that /48 to the LAN of Router2
Does this violate anything? Having issues getting through Router2
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