Crossposted using Lemmit.

Original post from /r/ipv6 by /u/Kevin_Cossaboon on 2023-07-05 19:30:03+00:00.

I have a /48, and I am using it as /64’s

Is there an issue with doing this;

Internet—(Router1)—/64----(Router2)—/64

• I have a Router on the WAN/FiOS, where the Tunnel.HE terminates.
• I take the /48 and put one on the LAN side of that Router
• Then Router2, obtains it’s WAN from Router1
• Then I assign another /64 from that /48 to the LAN of Router2

Does this violate anything? Having issues getting through Router2